Browse all practice questions for the FINRA Investment Banking Representative Practice Exam. Search by topic, open any question and review its full explanation, then test yourself in the practice quiz.

FINRA Investment Banking Representative Practice Exam 2026 – Complete Preparation Guide course image
Are Mutual Funds Active or Passive Investors?Are mutual funds considered active or passive investors?Understand What Happens When Transactions Aren’t Reported to OFACWhat is a potential consequence of not reporting a transaction to OFAC?Understanding Capital Gains Tax for C Corporations and S CorporationsDo C corporations and S corporations have a capital gains tax rate?Understanding Coincident Economic Indicators and Their ImpactWhich of the following is a coincident economic indicator?Understanding Conflicts of Interest in Investment BankingWhen is a conflict of interest deemed to occur for an issuer?Understanding earned surplus: What it really means for your financesWhat term describes retained earnings after dividends have been paid?Understanding Eurodollar Bonds: What Makes Them Unique?Eurodollar bonds are characterized by which of the following?Understanding How Limited Partnerships Involve InvestorsHow does a limited partnership typically involve investors?Understanding How Many Copies of the Preliminary Prospectus You NeedHow many copies of the preliminary prospectus must be filed with the SEC?Understanding Non-Agricultural Employment as a Coincident IndicatorHow is non-agricultural employment categorized in economic indicators?Understanding Proxy Statements in One-Step Mergers: Key Details and InsightsWhat is contained within a proxy statement in a one-step merger transaction?Understanding Rallowance: A Key Component in Public OfferingsWhat does a reallowance refer to in finance?Understanding Regulation M and Its Impact on SecuritiesWhich of the following securities does Regulation M apply to?Understanding Rule 144A and its Impact on Unregistered SecuritiesWhat does Rule 144A permit companies to do regarding unregistered securities?Understanding Stock Sales and Asset Sales Under §338 of the Internal Revenue CodeWhich Internal Revenue Code section treats a stock sale as an asset sale for tax purposes?Understanding the 30/360 Method for Bond Interest CalculationsWhat is the days counting methodology for municipal and corporate bonds?Understanding the Bad Actor Provision in Rule D and Its Impact on Private PlacementsWhat does the Bad Actor Provision in Rule D prohibit?Understanding the Concept of a Full Takedown in UnderwritingWhat is a full takedown in underwriting?Understanding the Formula for Accounts Payable TurnoverWhat formula is used to calculate Accounts Payable Turnover?Understanding the Holding Period for Restricted Stock Under Rule 144How long must a restricted stock be held before it can be sold under Rule 144?Understanding the Key Benefit of Carrying Back Net Operating LossesWhat is a primary benefit of carrying back net operating losses (NOLs)?Understanding the Primary Effects of a Sale Leaseback for Company AWhat is the primary effect of a sale leaseback for Company A?Understanding the Role of Form 211 for Market Makers on the OTCBBWhat must a market maker file to begin quoting a security on the OTCBB?Understanding what happens when a C corporation's deductions exceed incomeWhat can happen if a C corporation's tax deductions exceed its taxable income?Understanding What Needs to Be Disclosed on Form 144What must be disclosed on Form 144?Understanding When a Promissory Note Becomes a SecurityWhen is a promissory note considered a security?Understanding When You Should Report to OFACWhen should an individual report to OFAC?Understanding Written and Oral Communication in FinanceWhich of the following is not considered written communication?What Corporate Insiders Need to Know About Selling Shares Under Rule 144What action must a corporate insider take when selling shares under Rule 144?What You Need to Know About Shareholder Requirements for SEC RegistrationWhat is the minimum number of shareholders for registration with the SEC?What You Need to Know About the SEC's $10 Million Asset Registration ThresholdWhat financial threshold is required for asset registration with the SEC?When Is a Control Relationship Required to Be Disclosed to a Client?When is a control relationship required to be disclosed to a client?When Should an Auditor Report Illegal Activity Beyond the Board?When might an auditor report a potential illegal act to somebody other than the board of directors?
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  • For which of the following is a company NOT required to notify FINRA?
  • Which yield is usually greater for a T-bill?
  • What condition must be met for an offshore offering to be exempt under Regulation S?
  • What must companies do with returned shares that were purchased at a premium?
  • What is credit arbitrage?
  • Which transaction type must not be covered by a new issue?
  • What does the Hart-Scott-Rodino act govern?
  • Under SEC Rule 425, communications about a business combination must be
  • What type of incident must be reported to FINRA on an amended U-4?
  • Which of these is a benefit of a stock sale under §338?
  • When does the prudent man burden of proof standard apply?
  • What should be done if there's a change in the terms of the sale after filing Form 144?
  • What is a master limited partnership?
  • In which scenario would a buyer need to make Representations and Warranties about its own business?
  • How can repricing risk be effectively reduced?
  • Which of the following statements is true about limited liability company (LLC) members?
  • What happens when the SEC declares a registration statement effective?
  • Which of the following statements about Form 144 is correct?
  • When must firms report to FINRA upon receiving a written customer complaint?
  • During bankruptcy proceedings, which type of creditors have higher claim priority?
  • Under what circumstances do loans require permission?
  • Under what condition can an annual compliance meeting be recorded and delivered on-demand?
  • Which lists are firms conducting investment banking activities required to maintain?
  • Who are considered "fiduciaries" under FINRA Rule 2060?
  • The role of the specialist, also known as the Designated Market Maker, is most closely associated with which market?
  • Who files the Schedule TO in a tender offer situation?
  • What is the effect on debt/equity ratio if proceeds from a sale leaseback are distributed as dividends?
  • For what purpose is a Form 5 filed?
  • What constitutes a short position that cannot be covered by a new issue?
  • When a representative sells securities outside of their firm’s jurisdiction, what must they do?
  • When considering a company's valuation, which PEG ratio is preferable?
  • Who is typically restricted from investing in an IPO?
  • What is the intent of Regulation FD (Fair Disclosure)?
  • What is the minimum transaction value that requires an HSR filing?
  • When must a preliminary prospectus be delivered to a potential purchaser?
  • What is the statute of limitations for arbitration proceedings?
  • When must a recorded road show first be made available to investors?
  • What information must fiduciaries under FINRA Rule 2060 protect?
  • Where must a registered representative be registered?
  • When must the final syndicate settlement occur?
  • What is Rule 144 primarily related to?
  • What is another term for earned surplus?
  • Which economic indicator reflects conditions in the economy as they happen?
  • Which of the following is a key characteristic of an annual compliance meeting?
  • How long does an individual have to pass the appropriate qualification exam to function in a principal capacity?
  • In a merger, when must the HSR filing be made?
  • What is the maximum amount of secondary sales allowed by security holders under Tier 1 of Regulation A+?
  • What happens to Company A's EBITDA if it engages in a sale leaseback?
  • What must a newly registered representative who has been out of the securities industry for over two years complete regarding the Regulatory Element?
  • What is the quotation method used for T-bills?
  • What must occur immediately after a definitive agreement is signed between two companies regarding a purchase?
  • Who receives only the selling concession during an underwriting?
  • Can a mutual fund qualify as a Well-Known Seasoned Issuer (WKSI)?
  • What does a revised financial statement under Regulation A offer?
  • What defines Yankee bonds?
  • What is a requirement for someone to be classified as a Qualified Institutional Buyer?
  • Which group is considered an exception to the IPO investing restrictions?
  • What is the clearing bid in a Dutch auction tender?
  • Which of the following is TRUE regarding the requirement to notify an employer about a personal account?
  • Can variations of road shows exist according to regulations?
  • What is defined as spinning in the context of investment banking?
  • What is the formula for Return on Invested Capital (ROIC)?
  • How can a firm utilize its net operating losses (NOLs)?
  • What is the time frame for filing a written request for review to appeal a decision by the National Adjudicatory Council regarding a firm's membership?
  • What is the days counting methodology for Treasury bonds?
  • What types of communication are included in the definition of graphic communication?
  • What does the underwriting spread refer to?
  • What is the significance of a fairness opinion included in a proxy statement?
  • What are the maximum criminal penalties for insider trading?
  • What is the purpose of Regulation A?
  • What triggers the filing of a Form 4?
  • If an outside auditor determines an illegal act may have occurred, what is their first step?
  • According to the dividend discount model, how is the stock price calculated?
  • What is the primary purpose of an annual compliance meeting?
  • What is the primary purpose of Form 144?
  • Is the SEC filing of a recorded road show considered a free-writing prospectus?
  • What is a consequence of not notifying the NYSE about a declared dividend on time?
  • When is a Form 3 filed with the SEC?
  • Which of the following best describes a control relationship?
  • What is one of the main functions of the supervisory obligations when a rep sells securities outside their jurisdiction?
  • When must a managing underwriter notify the CFD of FINRA after SEC registration?
  • In the case of bankruptcy, what is the priority of fees for bankruptcy attorneys?
  • Can restricted shares be sold without complying with Rule 144 in certain circumstances?
  • In which scenarios would Form 144 not be applicable?
  • Which form is required for corporate insiders who trade stocks in the open market?
  • Does a recorded road show need to be filed with the SEC?
  • What is the maximum duration for a right of first refusal (ROFR) agreement?
  • What is the role of a managing underwriter in an IPO?
  • Under Rule 144A, who can Joe sell his unregistered stock to?
  • What is the purpose of Form D in Regulation D?
  • What type of loans generally does not require permission from an employer?
  • Which type of investor is NOT considered an accredited investor?
  • In which scenario is diluted shares outstanding not greater than basic shares outstanding?
  • What is the primary benefit of convertible bonds to issuers?
  • What action must an issuer take if found to have a conflict of interest?
  • Which group must file a Schedule 14D-9?
  • Under Regulation M, which category of securities has no restricted period?
  • What is Rule 147 primarily concerned with?
  • What is the consequence of not filing Form 144 as required?
  • What must be done if a seller exceeds the volume limits on sales covered by Form 144?
  • Who must a broker-dealer conduct an annual compliance meeting for?
  • When must a Schedule 14-D9 be filed following a Schedule TO filing?
  • How is Accounts Payable Turnover calculated?
  • What is the nature of the business structure of a limited partnership?
  • What is the minimum amount of net income required for an individual to be considered an accredited investor if married?
  • What should management do when shareholders submit proposals for proxy voting?
  • If a company has 80% of its assets located within a state, what does this satisfy in relation to Rule 147?
  • What is a promissory note?
  • What is required of a person participating in the distribution of a security under Regulation M?
  • What should be done with funds transferred from a country that has sanctions against it?
  • What is a characteristic of dividends on the balance sheet?
  • What is a likely consequence of a company's share buyback program?
  • What is required for a security to be listed on the OTCBB?
  • What does the term "size premium" refer to in finance?
  • Which requirement is necessary for a security to be listed on the OTC Pink market?
  • Does a broker-dealer need to maintain a permanent record of the prospectus?
  • In the event of bankruptcy, how are executives' claims under a tax-advantaged deferred compensation plan treated?
  • What does WACC stand for in finance?
  • What action is required when an individual opens a personal account?
  • When does an individual have a duty of trust?
  • Under normal circumstances, how many principals are general securities firms required to have?
  • What suitability requirement must institutional investors comply with?
  • What liabilities do general partners in a limited partnership have?
  • Which of the following is NOT a control security according to Rule 144?
  • What are the civil penalties associated with insider trading?
  • What should happen to shares trading at a premium that are returned to a syndicate member?
  • What is the restriction on the use of a new issue to cover a short position?
  • Where do most bond transactions typically take place?
  • Why are fixed interest rates significant in regards to sinking funds?
  • What is the primary purpose of Regulation D?
  • What must happen if a broker-dealer intends to promote a new issue?
  • Which of the following is not required for a company to maintain its listing on Nasdaq?
  • What is the takedown price?
  • What is required if there is a conflict of interest before selling a new issue?
  • When should a broker handle transactions covered by Form 144?
  • How much may issuers sell under Regulation A+ Tier 2?
  • What is the typical effect of a share buyback on a company's stock price?
  • What is a key characteristic of convertible bonds?
  • When should an issuer with low average trading volume avoid repurchasing its own securities?
  • How are T-notes and T-bonds quoted?
  • Which of the following best describes a limited liability company (LLC)?
  • What is the term used for a tender offer where stock is offered to shareholders instead of cash?
  • Which of the following is a condition for HSR filing, even if the transaction is smaller than the minimum value?
  • What is the filing date for a Schedule 8K?
  • What type of suitability do institutional investors specifically need to focus on?
  • In which round of the sale process does the financing provider typically commit to the final terms and conditions?
  • What does Economic Value Added (EVA) measure?
  • When must Form 144 be submitted to the SEC?
  • What is the purpose of hiring a qualified independent underwriter?
  • What is the function of a sinking fund?
  • According to Regulation M, what must FINRA receive from offering participants?
  • Why is a size premium added to the WACC for smaller companies?
  • When a company declares a dividend, which of the following occurs on the balance sheet?
  • What are the reporting obligations for companies under Regulation A?
  • To what does the "know-your-customer" rule apply?
  • What is the required notification timeframe for the NYSE if a dividend is declared?
  • When must an individual notify their employer about a personal account?
  • What advantage does a sinking fund provision provide to investors?
  • Under Regulation D, when is soliciting the public allowed?
  • How often must AML compliance testing be performed if a firm does not execute transactions for clients?
  • What information is required to be included in the purpose section of Form 144?
  • When does a C corporation generate net operating losses (NOLs)?
  • How is the value derived from unregistered stock sales under Rule 144A?
  • Does purchasing and selling limited partnership units for one’s own account require notification to the firm?
  • Under which circumstance is a Schedule 13D required?
  • What is a public float?
  • What is the discount rate in the context of the dividend discount model?
  • What is the purpose of the "know-your-customer" rule in finance?
  • Under which circumstance can a resale of a security occur without filing Form 144?
  • What is a common requirement for maintaining a firm’s membership with the FINRA?
  • When must an affiliate file notice of a proposed sale under Rule 144?
  • What guidance does the SEC provide regarding Form 144?
  • Under what circumstances might a company choose to file for bankruptcy instead of negotiating with creditors?
  • Which component makes up a percentage of the underwriting spread?
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